UKPSC Lecturer Physics PYQ Solved CBT Mock Test: Previous Year Papers & Online Practice

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UKPSC Lecturer Physics PYQ Solved CBT Mock Test: Subject Papers & Preparation

Ace the Uttarakhand Public Service Commission (UKPSC) Lecturer Physics exam with authentic previous year questions, real-time Computer-Based Test (CBT) mock tests, section-wise syllabus breakdown, and step-by-step numerical solutions.

📋 UKPSC Lecturer Physics: Exam Pattern & Marking Scheme

The UKPSC Lecturer Physics examination tests both postgraduate subject mastery and numerical problem-solving accuracy. Speed management is critical given the strict time window and negative marking.

Paper / StageType of TestTotal QuestionsMaximum MarksDurationNegative Marking
Physics Subject PaperObjective Type (MCQs)200 Questions200 Marks3 Hours (180 mins)0.25 Mark (−25%)
Screening Test (General / Pedagogy)Objective (GK, Teaching Aptitude, Hindi)150 Questions150 Marks2 Hours (120 mins)0.25 Mark (−25%)

Note: +1 mark is awarded for each correct attempt, and 0.25 mark (−25%) is deducted for each incorrect answer. Unattempted questions carry zero deduction.

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UKPSC Lecturer Physics
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Question No. 01 | Part A: General Aptitude
Question Type: MCQ | Correct: +2.0 | Incorrect: -0.50
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📖 Test Questions & Syllabus Outline (Google Search Index & Study Reference) Total: 150 Questions

This online mock test covers the following chemistry practice questions with bilingual explanations, negative marking schemes, and interactive CBT interface. Students searching for these topics can practice the complete test online with real-time timers:

  1. What is the quark structure of Ω¯ baryon? (where s, u and d represent different 'flavours' of quarks) Ω¯ Baryon (Spin 3/2, S = -3) s s s Quark charges: (-1/3e) + (-1/3e) + (-1/3e) = -1e Quark Composition: sss
  2. Which particular symmetry holds for all fundamental reactions? (Consider: C= Charge, P=Parity, T= Time reversal)
  3. The liquid drop model for nucleus gives :
  4. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is \(\lambda\) then, what will be the wavelength of the first line of the Paschen series?
  5. The radius of Ho is 7.731 Fermi. The radius of He is approximately :
  6. What will be the energy of the photon emitted in the decay: \(\Sigma^{\circ}=\wedge^{\circ}+\gamma\) (Mass of \(\wedge^{\circ}=1116\text{ MeV}\), Mass of \(\Sigma^{\circ}=1190\text{ MeV}\))
  7. Which of the following reaction/s can occur? (A) \(\wedge^{\circ}\rightarrow\pi^{+}+\pi^{-}\) (B) \(\pi^{-}+p\rightarrow n+\pi^{\circ}\) (C) \(\pi^{+}+p\rightarrow\pi^{+}+p+\pi^{-}+\pi^{\circ}\) (D) \(\gamma+n\rightarrow\pi^{+}+p\)
  8. Consider the following pairs. Which pair/s is/are not correctly matched? (I) 1 curie (Ci) = \(3.7\times 10^{10}\) disintegration/sec. (II) 1 milli curie (mCi) = \(3.7\times 10^{6}\) disintegration/sec. (III) 1 rutherford (Rd) = \(10^{6}\) disintegration/sec. (IV) 1 becquerel (Bq) = 1 disintegration/sec.
  9. The correct equation/s for \(\beta\)-decay is/are: (A) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{-}+v_{e}\) (B) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{-}+\bar{\nu}_{e}\) (C) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{+}+v_{e}\) (D) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{+}+\bar{v}_{e}\)
  10. Choose the correct option. The meson theory of nuclear forces suggest that : (A) Van der Waals forces are limited to very short range. (B) These forces do not have inverse square dependence.
  11. The surface energy term of liquid drop model of nucleus is expressed as:
  12. The interaction potential energy between two quarks separated by a distance r inside a nucleon can be described by:
  13. Electric charge of quark can be expressed as: (A) \(Q=+\frac{4}{3}e\) (B) \(Q=-\frac{5}{3}e\) (C) \(Q=-\frac{1}{3}e\) (D) \(Q=+\frac{2}{3}e\)
  14. What is the Larmor frequency of a proton in magnetic field of 1 tesla?
  15. Binary number \((1101111)_{2}\) is equivalent to which decimal number?
  16. A PN junction diode cannot be used as :
  17. A junction transistor has \(r_{e}=50~\Omega\), \(r_{b}=1~k\Omega\), \(r_{c}=1~M\Omega\) and \(\alpha=0.98\). If it is used in common base configuration, then its input resistance is :
  18. Which one of the following is an example of a lepton?
  19. The weak interaction is mediated by which?
  20. The correct Boolean identity of \((A+B)(A+C)\) is:
  21. Octal equivalent of \((8DF9)_{16}\) is:
  22. Consider the following pairs. Which pair(s) is/are correct? (I) AND Gate (II) NOR Gate (III) NOT Gate (IV) NAND Gate (I) AND Gate [Incorrect symbol: OR] (II) NOR Gate [Incorrect: NAND] (III) NOT Gate [Correct match] (IV) NAND Gate [Correct match]
  23. In a common emitter transistor characteristic, leakage current is due to :
  24. Consider the following equations : (I) \(\overline{A}+\overline{B}+\overline{C}=\overline{A\cdot B\cdot C}\) (II) \(\overline{A}+\overline{B}+\overline{C}=\overline{A+B+C}\) (III) \(\overline{A\cdot B\cdot C}=\overline{A}+\overline{B}+\overline{C}\) (IV) \(\overline{A\cdot B\cdot C}=\overline{A+B+C}\)
  25. Consider the following pairs: (I) Adding pentavalent impurity to intrinsic semiconductor -> N-type (II) Adding impurities -> Doping (III) Electrical conductivity decreases if temperature increases -> False for semiconductors (IV) In P-N-P transistor, N-type crystal acts like -> Emitter
  26. Consider the following truth-table for XOR Gate, \(Y=A\oplus B\): Which row/s of the truth-table is/are correct?XOR Gate Symbol & Truth Table (Y = A ⊕ B) A B Y Y = A'B + AB' Row A B Y (I) 0 0 0 (II) 0 1 1 (III) 1 0 1 (IV) 1 1 0
  27. For the logic circuit given below, which of the following option is not correct?Logic Circuit A B AND OR C C = (A · B) + B = B
  28. In the following circuit, how much current is drawn from the cell and potential drop occurs across diode \(D_{2}\)?Diode Circuit + - 2 V 10 Ω D₁ (Forward) 10 Ω D₂ (Reverse) 10 Ω I = 0.1 A
  29. In the following circuit, the minimum value of resistance \(R_{S}\) that keeps the zener diode safe is:Zener Diode Voltage Regulator Circuit + - Vᵢₙ = 12 V Rˢ V_z = 5 V P = 0.5 W I_z(max) = 0.1 A V_out = 5 V
  30. The load current in the transmitting antenna of an unmodulated AM transmitter is 6 Amp. What will be the antenna current when modulation is 60%?
  31. Which of the following is responsible for bringing communication and information technology together?
  32. The basic element/s of any communication system is/are :
  33. A transistor is being used at \(25^{\circ}C\) with common base amplifier configuration. Emitter current is 2 mA and base current is 40 \(\mu\text{A}\). The collector current and current gain will be :
  34. In a negative feedback amplifier, the gain \(A_{V}\) of amplifier is 12000. If the feedback factor is 0.05, the closed loop gain \(A_{f}\) of the amplifier circuit will be :
  35. What are the three essential and fundamental elements of any communication system?
  36. When compared to an analog signal carrying the same information, a digital signal usually needs:
  37. When radio waves travel through atmosphere, which layer is mainly responsible of reflecting them back to earth?
  38. What is the main reason that a communication network is necessary?
  39. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52.0 kHz, what is the highest frequency?
  40. Which protocol is primarily used for sending emails?
  41. The critical temperature of lead is 7.2 K. What is the binding energy of its cooper pairs at zero temperature?
  42. In a perfect ionic crystal, which type of defects dominate?
  43. The Hall coefficient of an n-type semiconductor is:
  44. The total efficiency of an injection laser with a GaAs active region is 18%. The voltage applied is 2.5 V and band gap energy of GaAs is 1.43 eV. The external power efficiency of the device is :
  45. What does DHCP do on a network?
  46. If a material is transformed into a superconducting state from a normal state, its entropy:
  47. A simple cubic (SC) crystal has lattice constant \(a=0.3\text{ nm}\). The interplanar spacing for the (111) plane is
  48. An insulator has an optical absorption below 1800 Å. The width of forbidden energy gap is:
  49. According to the BCS theory of superconductivity, what is threshold energy of an excitation required to break a Cooper pair?
  50. Compare the density of lattice planes in (132) plane with that in (100) planes for a cubic primitive lattice:
  51. What is the packing fraction of a face centered cubic (FCC) structure?
  52. The power radiated by Sun is \(3.8\times 10^{26}\) watt and radius of Sun is \(7\times 10^{8}\) m. The average value of Poynting vector is -
  53. The energy per unit time and per unit area transported by the electromagnetic field is called –
  54. The Maxwell's electromagnetic equations are valid under the following conditions except one, which is -
  55. The amplitude of the electric field in a parallel beam of light of intensity \(2.0\text{ watt/m}^{2}\) will be -
  56. Speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is same - (A) for all wavelengths (B) in all mediums (C) for all intensities (D) for all frequencies
  57. A dielectric medium has a relative permittivity \(\epsilon_{r}=4\) and relative permeability \(\mu_{r}=1\). The speed of light in this medium is -
  58. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to sterilize surgical instruments due to its ability to break molecular bonds?
  59. Which concept was introduced by Maxwell to modify Ampere's law?
  60. The ratio of the peak electric field \((E_{0})\) to the peak magnetic field \((B_{0})\) in a plane electromagnetic wave in free space is equal to -
  61. In free space, if \(\vec{E}(z,t)=10^{3}\sin(\omega t-\beta z)\hat{a}_{y}\text{ V/m}\), then the value of \(\vec{H}(z,t)\) will be -
  62. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in a free space along x-direction. At a particular point in space and time, \(\vec{E}=6.3\hat{j}\text{ V/m}\). What is value of \(\vec{B}\) at this point?
  63. A TV tower has a height of 235 m. How much population is covered by the TV broadcast if the average population density around the tower is \(1000\text{ km}^{-2}\)?
  64. The magnetic scalar potential exists, where -
  65. Which of the following process is reversible?
  66. Determine the efficiency of a reversible engine working between \(527^{\circ}C\) and \(27^{\circ}C\)
  67. Which of the following fundamental evidence proves that electromagnetic waves are transverse and not longitudinal?
  68. The electric field vector of a plane electromagnetic wave oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of \(3\times 10^{10}\text{ Hz}\). What is its wavelength?
  69. In ideal gas case, the work done in an isochoric process is given by the following -
  70. A steam engine intakes 100 gm of steam at \(100^{\circ}\text{C}\) per minute and cools it down to \(20^{\circ}\text{C}\). Calculate the heat rejected per minute. (Latent heat = 540 cal/gm)
  71. A heat engine operates between a cold reservoir at temperature \(T_{2}=300\text{ K}\) and a hot reservoir at temperature \(T_{1}\). It takes 200 J of heat from hot reservoir and delivers 120 J to cold reservoir. What could be the minimum temperature of hot reservoir?
  72. An object which takes heat from a constant temperature source and rejects to a lower temperature body, is said to be -
  73. The fundamental limitation to the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given by which of the following?
  74. A fully charged car battery discharges losing 250 kcal to environment. Recharged consuming 0.53 kWh of electricity. What is heat transfer during charging?
  75. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to principal axis. If original power is 4 D, power of cut lenses will be -Cutting Symmetric Convex Lens Perpendicular to Principal Axis Power P = 4 D Cut P' = 2 D P' = 2 D
  76. A near sighted man can clearly see objects upto a distance of 1.5 m. The power of the lens necessary for remedy will be -
  77. A compound microscope has objective focal length 1 cm and eyepiece 2.5 cm. Object placed at 1.2 cm from objective for normal adjustment, angular magnification will be -
  78. Which physical quantity is conserved in the first law of thermodynamics?
  79. Which law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to reach the absolute zero of temperature?
  80. Two coherent sources of different intensities send waves which interfere. Ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity is 25:1. Intensities of sources are in which ratio?
  81. Two sources are called coherent if they produce waves
  82. A man wearing glasses of focal length +1 m cannot clearly see beyond 1 m,
  83. The optical path of a monochromatic light is the same if it goes through 2.00 cm thick layer of glass or 2.25 cm thick layer of water. If refractive index of water is 1.33, what is refractive index of glass?
  84. If the source of light used in a Young's double slit experiment is changed from red to violet then-
  85. If a light wave travels in vacuum along the x-axis, then which of the following may represent the wave fronts?
  86. A ray of light is incident on a liquid surface at polarizing angle \(i_{p}\), then angle between refracted ray and direction of electric field of reflected light is -Brewster's Law: Polarization by Reflection Liquid (μ) Air (μ = 1) Incident ray i_p Reflected ray (polarized) Refracted ray 90°
  87. If the diameter of the objective lens of an astronomical telescope is increased, then its magnification
  88. A diffraction grating is used to separate two wavelengths \(\lambda_{1}\) and \(\lambda_{2}\). When N slits are illuminated, resolving power R in mth order is -
  89. A printed page is kept pressed by a glass cube \((\mu=1.5)\) of edge 6.0 cm. By what amount will printed letters appear to be shifted when viewed from top?
  90. Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface \((\mu=1.5\), radius \(=20\text{ cm}\)). Distance of source is 100 cm. At what position image will be formed?
  91. A double slit interference experiment uses laser emitted light of two adjacent frequencies \(v_{1}\) and \(v_{2}\) \((v_{1}
  92. A lens with focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit 0.3 mm wide. If wavelength is 5890 Å, distance of first dark band from axis will be -
  93. A man runs toward a plane mirror at \(5\text{ m/sec}\) and mirror on rollers approaches him at \(2\text{ m/sec}\). Speed of his image relative to ground is -
  94. A microscope is focused on a mark. If a 2 cm thick glass slab \((\mu=1.5)\) is placed over mark, in order to refocus, microscope must be raised by vertical distance of
  95. Light travels through glass \((\mu=1.5)\) of thickness t. What will be equivalent path length in air for this travel?
  96. The average momentum of a molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on -
  97. For a diatomic gas at room temperature, degree of freedom classically is -
  98. Which of the following diagram(s) depicts ideal gas behaviour?Ideal Gas Behavior Diagrams (A) T V V ∝ T (P = const) (B) V P Linear P-V (Incorrect) (C) T P P ∝ T (V = const) (D) P PV Slanted PV vs P (Incorrect)
  99. A convex lens of focal length f produces an image of an object of length l. If magnification is m and distance between object and screen is t, then correct relation is:
  100. The rms speed of nitrogen at standard temperature and pressure will be (pressure = 1 atm, temp = \(0^{\circ}\text{C}\), density = \(1.25\text{ kg m}^{-3}\)).
  101. The diameter of the molecule of a gas is \(2\times 10^{-10}\text{ m}\). The mean free path at NTP will be -
  102. For a gas, the root mean square speed at 800 K will be -
  103. Consider statements: 1. Mean free path decreases if molecular diameter increases. 2. Mean free path is independent of temperature at constant pressure.
  104. Consider pairs of molecular speeds and formulas. How many are correctly matched?
  105. Wave theory of light can explain which of the following phenomenon? I. reflection, photoelectric effect, Compton effect II. diffraction, interference, polarization III. photoelectric effect, reflection, diffraction
  106. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving with a speed of \(5.4\times 10^{6}\text{ m/sec}\)?
  107. If \(\psi_{i}\) and \(\psi_{j}\) are two different wave functions, these wave functions will be normalised and orthogonal if
  108. How does the mean free path of the molecules of a gas depend on the density of the gas?
  109. What will be the ratio of specific heats \((\gamma = C_p / C_v)\) for monoatomic, diatomic and triatomic (linear) molecules of an ideal gas?
  110. Which one of the following is not correct in context of the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation?
  111. The density of state is proportional to \(E^{1/2}\), in which of the following case?
  112. Which of the following pair of equations regarding the uncertainty principle are correct? I. \(\Delta x \cdot \Delta p \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\) II. \(\Delta E \cdot \Delta t \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\) III. \(\Delta E \cdot \Delta p \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\) IV. \(\Delta E \cdot \Delta v \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\)
  113. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volts?
  114. The quantity which cannot be conserved in photon-particle collision is -
  115. Consider a particle of mass 'm' in a one-dimensional infinite potential well of width \(L=0.5\text{ nm}\). Calculate the number of allowed quantum states that have a wave vector 'k' in the range \(10\text{ nm}^{-1} \le k \le 100\text{ nm}^{-1}\).
  116. An electron and proton are moving with the same kinetic energies. Which of the following statements is true about their de-Broglie wave?
  117. If \(\psi_{1}(x)=A e^{-x^{2}/2}\) and \(\psi_{2}(x)=Be^{-x^{2}}\), the value of \(\langle \psi_{1} | \psi_{2} \rangle\) is -
  118. Energy flux of sunlight reached on Earth surface is \(1\times 10^{3}\text{ W/m}^2\) at normal incidence. How many photons reach per square metre per second? (\(\lambda = 500\text{ nm}\))
  119. How does the energy eigen values of a particle in a one-dimensional box depend on the length L of box?
  120. Who estimated the size of nucleus first?
  121. How much coal is required to generate energy that is equivalent to the energy generated through the fission of one kg (1 kg) of uranium?
  122. Which of the following is the correct relativistic momentum-energy relation?
  123. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
  124. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is applicable to -
  125. Find the probability that the nucleus of \(_{87}\text{Ra}^{221}\) undergoes decay in over three half-life period, if it has a half-life of 6 days?
  126. What type of reaction takes place in Sun?
  127. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry the same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?
  128. Which one of the following is correct for Rydberg constant R?
  129. An electron in a hydrogen atom performs a transition from \(n=4\) to \(n=2\) energy state. To which spectral series does this transition belong?Hydrogen Atom Spectral Series & Transitions n=1 (-13.6 eV) n=2 (-3.4 eV) n=3 (-1.51 eV) n=4 (-0.85 eV) n=5 (-0.54 eV) Lyman (UV) n=4 → n=2 (Hβ) Balmer Series (Visible) Paschen (IR)
  130. An element 'X' has two isotopes, \(^{20}\text{X}\) with 90% abundance and \(^{22}\text{X}\) with 10% abundance. What is the average atomic mass?
  131. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the ground state of doubly-ionised Lithium atom \((Z=3)\) is:
  132. If the binding energy of a nucleus is greater than zero, then the nucleus :
  133. Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 years, undergoing \(\beta\)-decay. What fraction of a sample of pure Tritium will remain undecayed after 25 years?
  134. Consider spectral series of hydrogen: 1. Lyman 2. Balmer 3. Paschen 4. Bracket. How many of the above lie in the visible region?
  135. The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom in an excited state is -3.4 eV. Find the angular momentum of the electron.
  136. The potential of a diatomic molecule is \(V(r)=-\frac{a}{r^{6}}+\frac{b}{r^{12}}\). Value of potential at equilibrium separation between atoms will be:
  137. Electrical pumping is used in:
  138. The ground state of \(_{11}^{23}\text{Na}\) is \(2s_{1/2}\). Difference of energy levels arising in presence of weak external magnetic field 'B' in terms of Bohr magneton \(\mu_{B}\) will be:
  139. Which one of the following was a major drawback of Rutherford's atomic model?
  140. If in a system, more atoms are in an excited state than its ground state, then this condition is termed as
  141. What is Stark effect?
  142. Which of the following method(s) is correct method(s) of achieving population inversion in case of laser?
  143. In a normal Zeeman effect experiment, spectral splitting of lines at 656 nm corresponding to \(^{3}p_{2}-^{3}s_{1}\) transition is observed with resolution 0.008 nm. Minimum magnetic field required is:
  144. Speed of an electron in Bohr's 5th orbit for hydrogen atom is \(3.6\times 10^{6}\text{ m/s}\). Corresponding speed in 9th orbit will be:
  145. In a He-Ne Laser, the laser transition takes place in
  146. The output of a laser \((\lambda=6600\text{ Å})\) has pulse duration of 35 ms, and average output power of 1 watt per pulse. How much energy per pulse is released?
  147. What is the coherence length of a laser beam for which bandwidth is \(\Delta v=3000\text{ Hz}\)? \((c=3\times 10^{8}\text{ m/s})\)
  148. The \(L_{\beta}\) lines of X-rays emitted from an atom arises from which transition?
  149. For hard X-rays : (A) Wavelength higher (B) Intensity higher (C) Frequency higher (D) Photon energy higher
  150. The coherence length \((L_{c})\) of a source is related to its spectral width \((\Delta \lambda)\) by:

📝 Sample UKPSC Lecturer Physics Solved PYQs

Study the standard pattern, derivation steps, and conceptual questions frequently framed in past UKPSC Lecturer Physics papers:

Q1. What is the ground state energy of a quantum linear harmonic oscillator of natural angular frequency ω?
  • A) 0
  • B) (1/2) ℏω
  • C) ℏω
  • D) (3/2) ℏω
Correct Answer: B ((1/2) ℏω)
Explanation: The energy eigenvalues for a 1D quantum harmonic oscillator are given by En = (n + 1/2) ℏω, where n = 0, 1, 2, 3… For the ground state (n = 0), the zero-point energy is E0 = (1/2) ℏω, as demanded by Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
Q2. At what speed must a relativistic particle move so that its total relativistic energy is double its rest mass energy (E = 2m0c2)?
  • A) c / 2
  • B) (√3 / 2) c
  • C) c / √2
  • D) (√3 / 4) c
Correct Answer: B ((√3 / 2) c ≈ 0.866 c)
Explanation: Relativistic total energy is E = γ m0c2, where γ = 1 / √(1 − v2/c2).
Given E = 2 m0c2 ⇒ γ = 2.
Therefore, √(1 − v2/c2) = 1/2 ⇒ 1 − v2/c2 = 1/4 ⇒ v2/c2 = 3/4 ⇒ v = (√3 / 2) c.
Q3. The Poynting vector S representing electromagnetic energy flux per unit area per unit time is expressed as:
  • A) S = E × B
  • B) S = (1 / μ0) (E × B)
  • C) S = ε0 (E × B)
  • D) S = EB / μ0
Correct Answer: B (S = (1 / μ0) (E × B))
Explanation: The Poynting vector gives the directional energy flux density of an electromagnetic field. In SI units, S = (1 / μ0) (E × B) = E × H, with units of Watts per square meter (W/m2).

🎯 UKPSC Lecturer Physics: High-Yield Topic Weightage

Systematic analysis of previous UKPSC Physics papers indicates that the majority of questions are concentrated in the following core areas:

1. Classical Mechanics & Relativity

  • Lagrangian & Hamiltonian Dynamics: Generalized coordinates, Euler-Lagrange equations of motion, cyclic coordinates, and conservation laws.
  • Central Force Motion: Kepler’s laws of planetary motion, effective potential plots, stability of circular orbits.
  • Special Relativity: Lorentz transformations, length contraction, time dilation, and relativistic four-momentum.

2. Quantum Mechanics & Atomic Physics

  • Wave-Particle Duality: De Broglie wavelength, Schrödinger wave equation (time-dependent and time-independent), boundary conditions.
  • Potential Wells & Barriers: Finite and infinite 1D square well, quantum tunneling through a rectangular barrier.
  • Atomic Spectra: Hydrogen atom energy levels (En ∝ −1/n2), spin-orbit coupling, LS and JJ coupling schemes, normal and anomalous Zeeman effect.

3. Electrodynamics & Wave Optics

  • Maxwell’s Equations: Differential and integral forms, gauge transformations (Coulomb & Lorentz gauge), scalar and vector potentials.
  • Wave Optics: Interference in thin films, Newton’s rings, Fraunhofer and Fresnel diffraction, Rayleigh criterion of resolution, and Brewster’s law (tan θp = μ).

4. Solid State Physics & Electronics

  • Crystallography: Miller indices, Bragg’s law (2d sin θ = nλ), reciprocal lattice of SC, BCC, and FCC lattices.
  • Band Theory: Kronig-Penney model, effective mass of electron m* = ℏ2 / (d2E / dk2), Hall effect coefficient RH.
  • Digital & Analog Electronics: Ideal operational amplifier configurations (inverting, non-inverting, summer, integrator), feedback amplifiers, logic gates, and Boolean algebra.

💡 Preparation Strategy for UKPSC Lecturer Physics

  1. Time Management (Under 54 seconds per question): 200 questions in 180 minutes requires swift formula recall. Avoid spending more than 1 minute on heavy algebra or multi-step integrals on the first pass.
  2. CBT Simulation for Negative Marking: Because of the 1/4th penalty (−0.25 marks), eliminate at least 2 distractors before making calculated attempts.
  3. Consolidated Formula Sheets: Maintain concise formula handbooks for moments of inertia, Legendre polynomials, relativistic invariants, and logic gate truth tables.

❓ Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

Q1. What is the syllabus level for the UKPSC Lecturer Physics examination?

The syllabus corresponds to B.Sc. and M.Sc. Physics standards of recognized Indian universities, covering Classical Mechanics, Electrodynamics, Quantum Mechanics, Statistical Mechanics, Nuclear Physics, Optics, and Solid State Electronics.

Q2. Is there negative marking in the UKPSC Lecturer Physics paper?

Yes. UKPSC deducts 0.25 mark (25% penalty) for every incorrect response in the objective paper. Unattempted questions do not incur penalties.

Q3. How does attempting the CBT Mock Test with ID 60 help in exam readiness?

The

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📖 Test Questions & Syllabus Outline (Google Search Index & Study Reference) Total: 150 Questions

This online mock test covers the following chemistry practice questions with bilingual explanations, negative marking schemes, and interactive CBT interface. Students searching for these topics can practice the complete test online with real-time timers:

  1. What is the quark structure of Ω¯ baryon? (where s, u and d represent different 'flavours' of quarks) Ω¯ Baryon (Spin 3/2, S = -3) s s s Quark charges: (-1/3e) + (-1/3e) + (-1/3e) = -1e Quark Composition: sss
  2. Which particular symmetry holds for all fundamental reactions? (Consider: C= Charge, P=Parity, T= Time reversal)
  3. The liquid drop model for nucleus gives :
  4. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is \(\lambda\) then, what will be the wavelength of the first line of the Paschen series?
  5. The radius of Ho is 7.731 Fermi. The radius of He is approximately :
  6. What will be the energy of the photon emitted in the decay: \(\Sigma^{\circ}=\wedge^{\circ}+\gamma\) (Mass of \(\wedge^{\circ}=1116\text{ MeV}\), Mass of \(\Sigma^{\circ}=1190\text{ MeV}\))
  7. Which of the following reaction/s can occur? (A) \(\wedge^{\circ}\rightarrow\pi^{+}+\pi^{-}\) (B) \(\pi^{-}+p\rightarrow n+\pi^{\circ}\) (C) \(\pi^{+}+p\rightarrow\pi^{+}+p+\pi^{-}+\pi^{\circ}\) (D) \(\gamma+n\rightarrow\pi^{+}+p\)
  8. Consider the following pairs. Which pair/s is/are not correctly matched? (I) 1 curie (Ci) = \(3.7\times 10^{10}\) disintegration/sec. (II) 1 milli curie (mCi) = \(3.7\times 10^{6}\) disintegration/sec. (III) 1 rutherford (Rd) = \(10^{6}\) disintegration/sec. (IV) 1 becquerel (Bq) = 1 disintegration/sec.
  9. The correct equation/s for \(\beta\)-decay is/are: (A) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{-}+v_{e}\) (B) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{-}+\bar{\nu}_{e}\) (C) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{+}+v_{e}\) (D) \(n\rightarrow p+e^{+}+\bar{v}_{e}\)
  10. Choose the correct option. The meson theory of nuclear forces suggest that : (A) Van der Waals forces are limited to very short range. (B) These forces do not have inverse square dependence.
  11. The surface energy term of liquid drop model of nucleus is expressed as:
  12. The interaction potential energy between two quarks separated by a distance r inside a nucleon can be described by:
  13. Electric charge of quark can be expressed as: (A) \(Q=+\frac{4}{3}e\) (B) \(Q=-\frac{5}{3}e\) (C) \(Q=-\frac{1}{3}e\) (D) \(Q=+\frac{2}{3}e\)
  14. What is the Larmor frequency of a proton in magnetic field of 1 tesla?
  15. Binary number \((1101111)_{2}\) is equivalent to which decimal number?
  16. A PN junction diode cannot be used as :
  17. A junction transistor has \(r_{e}=50~\Omega\), \(r_{b}=1~k\Omega\), \(r_{c}=1~M\Omega\) and \(\alpha=0.98\). If it is used in common base configuration, then its input resistance is :
  18. Which one of the following is an example of a lepton?
  19. The weak interaction is mediated by which?
  20. The correct Boolean identity of \((A+B)(A+C)\) is:
  21. Octal equivalent of \((8DF9)_{16}\) is:
  22. Consider the following pairs. Which pair(s) is/are correct? (I) AND Gate (II) NOR Gate (III) NOT Gate (IV) NAND Gate (I) AND Gate [Incorrect symbol: OR] (II) NOR Gate [Incorrect: NAND] (III) NOT Gate [Correct match] (IV) NAND Gate [Correct match]
  23. In a common emitter transistor characteristic, leakage current is due to :
  24. Consider the following equations : (I) \(\overline{A}+\overline{B}+\overline{C}=\overline{A\cdot B\cdot C}\) (II) \(\overline{A}+\overline{B}+\overline{C}=\overline{A+B+C}\) (III) \(\overline{A\cdot B\cdot C}=\overline{A}+\overline{B}+\overline{C}\) (IV) \(\overline{A\cdot B\cdot C}=\overline{A+B+C}\)
  25. Consider the following pairs: (I) Adding pentavalent impurity to intrinsic semiconductor -> N-type (II) Adding impurities -> Doping (III) Electrical conductivity decreases if temperature increases -> False for semiconductors (IV) In P-N-P transistor, N-type crystal acts like -> Emitter
  26. Consider the following truth-table for XOR Gate, \(Y=A\oplus B\): Which row/s of the truth-table is/are correct?XOR Gate Symbol & Truth Table (Y = A ⊕ B) A B Y Y = A'B + AB' Row A B Y (I) 0 0 0 (II) 0 1 1 (III) 1 0 1 (IV) 1 1 0
  27. For the logic circuit given below, which of the following option is not correct?Logic Circuit A B AND OR C C = (A · B) + B = B
  28. In the following circuit, how much current is drawn from the cell and potential drop occurs across diode \(D_{2}\)?Diode Circuit + - 2 V 10 Ω D₁ (Forward) 10 Ω D₂ (Reverse) 10 Ω I = 0.1 A
  29. In the following circuit, the minimum value of resistance \(R_{S}\) that keeps the zener diode safe is:Zener Diode Voltage Regulator Circuit + - Vᵢₙ = 12 V Rˢ V_z = 5 V P = 0.5 W I_z(max) = 0.1 A V_out = 5 V
  30. The load current in the transmitting antenna of an unmodulated AM transmitter is 6 Amp. What will be the antenna current when modulation is 60%?
  31. Which of the following is responsible for bringing communication and information technology together?
  32. The basic element/s of any communication system is/are :
  33. A transistor is being used at \(25^{\circ}C\) with common base amplifier configuration. Emitter current is 2 mA and base current is 40 \(\mu\text{A}\). The collector current and current gain will be :
  34. In a negative feedback amplifier, the gain \(A_{V}\) of amplifier is 12000. If the feedback factor is 0.05, the closed loop gain \(A_{f}\) of the amplifier circuit will be :
  35. What are the three essential and fundamental elements of any communication system?
  36. When compared to an analog signal carrying the same information, a digital signal usually needs:
  37. When radio waves travel through atmosphere, which layer is mainly responsible of reflecting them back to earth?
  38. What is the main reason that a communication network is necessary?
  39. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52.0 kHz, what is the highest frequency?
  40. Which protocol is primarily used for sending emails?
  41. The critical temperature of lead is 7.2 K. What is the binding energy of its cooper pairs at zero temperature?
  42. In a perfect ionic crystal, which type of defects dominate?
  43. The Hall coefficient of an n-type semiconductor is:
  44. The total efficiency of an injection laser with a GaAs active region is 18%. The voltage applied is 2.5 V and band gap energy of GaAs is 1.43 eV. The external power efficiency of the device is :
  45. What does DHCP do on a network?
  46. If a material is transformed into a superconducting state from a normal state, its entropy:
  47. A simple cubic (SC) crystal has lattice constant \(a=0.3\text{ nm}\). The interplanar spacing for the (111) plane is
  48. An insulator has an optical absorption below 1800 Å. The width of forbidden energy gap is:
  49. According to the BCS theory of superconductivity, what is threshold energy of an excitation required to break a Cooper pair?
  50. Compare the density of lattice planes in (132) plane with that in (100) planes for a cubic primitive lattice:
  51. What is the packing fraction of a face centered cubic (FCC) structure?
  52. The power radiated by Sun is \(3.8\times 10^{26}\) watt and radius of Sun is \(7\times 10^{8}\) m. The average value of Poynting vector is -
  53. The energy per unit time and per unit area transported by the electromagnetic field is called –
  54. The Maxwell's electromagnetic equations are valid under the following conditions except one, which is -
  55. The amplitude of the electric field in a parallel beam of light of intensity \(2.0\text{ watt/m}^{2}\) will be -
  56. Speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is same - (A) for all wavelengths (B) in all mediums (C) for all intensities (D) for all frequencies
  57. A dielectric medium has a relative permittivity \(\epsilon_{r}=4\) and relative permeability \(\mu_{r}=1\). The speed of light in this medium is -
  58. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to sterilize surgical instruments due to its ability to break molecular bonds?
  59. Which concept was introduced by Maxwell to modify Ampere's law?
  60. The ratio of the peak electric field \((E_{0})\) to the peak magnetic field \((B_{0})\) in a plane electromagnetic wave in free space is equal to -
  61. In free space, if \(\vec{E}(z,t)=10^{3}\sin(\omega t-\beta z)\hat{a}_{y}\text{ V/m}\), then the value of \(\vec{H}(z,t)\) will be -
  62. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in a free space along x-direction. At a particular point in space and time, \(\vec{E}=6.3\hat{j}\text{ V/m}\). What is value of \(\vec{B}\) at this point?
  63. A TV tower has a height of 235 m. How much population is covered by the TV broadcast if the average population density around the tower is \(1000\text{ km}^{-2}\)?
  64. The magnetic scalar potential exists, where -
  65. Which of the following process is reversible?
  66. Determine the efficiency of a reversible engine working between \(527^{\circ}C\) and \(27^{\circ}C\)
  67. Which of the following fundamental evidence proves that electromagnetic waves are transverse and not longitudinal?
  68. The electric field vector of a plane electromagnetic wave oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of \(3\times 10^{10}\text{ Hz}\). What is its wavelength?
  69. In ideal gas case, the work done in an isochoric process is given by the following -
  70. A steam engine intakes 100 gm of steam at \(100^{\circ}\text{C}\) per minute and cools it down to \(20^{\circ}\text{C}\). Calculate the heat rejected per minute. (Latent heat = 540 cal/gm)
  71. A heat engine operates between a cold reservoir at temperature \(T_{2}=300\text{ K}\) and a hot reservoir at temperature \(T_{1}\). It takes 200 J of heat from hot reservoir and delivers 120 J to cold reservoir. What could be the minimum temperature of hot reservoir?
  72. An object which takes heat from a constant temperature source and rejects to a lower temperature body, is said to be -
  73. The fundamental limitation to the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given by which of the following?
  74. A fully charged car battery discharges losing 250 kcal to environment. Recharged consuming 0.53 kWh of electricity. What is heat transfer during charging?
  75. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to principal axis. If original power is 4 D, power of cut lenses will be -Cutting Symmetric Convex Lens Perpendicular to Principal Axis Power P = 4 D Cut P' = 2 D P' = 2 D
  76. A near sighted man can clearly see objects upto a distance of 1.5 m. The power of the lens necessary for remedy will be -
  77. A compound microscope has objective focal length 1 cm and eyepiece 2.5 cm. Object placed at 1.2 cm from objective for normal adjustment, angular magnification will be -
  78. Which physical quantity is conserved in the first law of thermodynamics?
  79. Which law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to reach the absolute zero of temperature?
  80. Two coherent sources of different intensities send waves which interfere. Ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity is 25:1. Intensities of sources are in which ratio?
  81. Two sources are called coherent if they produce waves
  82. A man wearing glasses of focal length +1 m cannot clearly see beyond 1 m,
  83. The optical path of a monochromatic light is the same if it goes through 2.00 cm thick layer of glass or 2.25 cm thick layer of water. If refractive index of water is 1.33, what is refractive index of glass?
  84. If the source of light used in a Young's double slit experiment is changed from red to violet then-
  85. If a light wave travels in vacuum along the x-axis, then which of the following may represent the wave fronts?
  86. A ray of light is incident on a liquid surface at polarizing angle \(i_{p}\), then angle between refracted ray and direction of electric field of reflected light is -Brewster's Law: Polarization by Reflection Liquid (μ) Air (μ = 1) Incident ray i_p Reflected ray (polarized) Refracted ray 90°
  87. If the diameter of the objective lens of an astronomical telescope is increased, then its magnification
  88. A diffraction grating is used to separate two wavelengths \(\lambda_{1}\) and \(\lambda_{2}\). When N slits are illuminated, resolving power R in mth order is -
  89. A printed page is kept pressed by a glass cube \((\mu=1.5)\) of edge 6.0 cm. By what amount will printed letters appear to be shifted when viewed from top?
  90. Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface \((\mu=1.5\), radius \(=20\text{ cm}\)). Distance of source is 100 cm. At what position image will be formed?
  91. A double slit interference experiment uses laser emitted light of two adjacent frequencies \(v_{1}\) and \(v_{2}\) \((v_{1}
  92. A lens with focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit 0.3 mm wide. If wavelength is 5890 Å, distance of first dark band from axis will be -
  93. A man runs toward a plane mirror at \(5\text{ m/sec}\) and mirror on rollers approaches him at \(2\text{ m/sec}\). Speed of his image relative to ground is -
  94. A microscope is focused on a mark. If a 2 cm thick glass slab \((\mu=1.5)\) is placed over mark, in order to refocus, microscope must be raised by vertical distance of
  95. Light travels through glass \((\mu=1.5)\) of thickness t. What will be equivalent path length in air for this travel?
  96. The average momentum of a molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on -
  97. For a diatomic gas at room temperature, degree of freedom classically is -
  98. Which of the following diagram(s) depicts ideal gas behaviour?Ideal Gas Behavior Diagrams (A) T V V ∝ T (P = const) (B) V P Linear P-V (Incorrect) (C) T P P ∝ T (V = const) (D) P PV Slanted PV vs P (Incorrect)
  99. A convex lens of focal length f produces an image of an object of length l. If magnification is m and distance between object and screen is t, then correct relation is:
  100. The rms speed of nitrogen at standard temperature and pressure will be (pressure = 1 atm, temp = \(0^{\circ}\text{C}\), density = \(1.25\text{ kg m}^{-3}\)).
  101. The diameter of the molecule of a gas is \(2\times 10^{-10}\text{ m}\). The mean free path at NTP will be -
  102. For a gas, the root mean square speed at 800 K will be -
  103. Consider statements: 1. Mean free path decreases if molecular diameter increases. 2. Mean free path is independent of temperature at constant pressure.
  104. Consider pairs of molecular speeds and formulas. How many are correctly matched?
  105. Wave theory of light can explain which of the following phenomenon? I. reflection, photoelectric effect, Compton effect II. diffraction, interference, polarization III. photoelectric effect, reflection, diffraction
  106. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving with a speed of \(5.4\times 10^{6}\text{ m/sec}\)?
  107. If \(\psi_{i}\) and \(\psi_{j}\) are two different wave functions, these wave functions will be normalised and orthogonal if
  108. How does the mean free path of the molecules of a gas depend on the density of the gas?
  109. What will be the ratio of specific heats \((\gamma = C_p / C_v)\) for monoatomic, diatomic and triatomic (linear) molecules of an ideal gas?
  110. Which one of the following is not correct in context of the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation?
  111. The density of state is proportional to \(E^{1/2}\), in which of the following case?
  112. Which of the following pair of equations regarding the uncertainty principle are correct? I. \(\Delta x \cdot \Delta p \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\) II. \(\Delta E \cdot \Delta t \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\) III. \(\Delta E \cdot \Delta p \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\) IV. \(\Delta E \cdot \Delta v \ge \frac{\hbar}{2}\)
  113. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volts?
  114. The quantity which cannot be conserved in photon-particle collision is -
  115. Consider a particle of mass 'm' in a one-dimensional infinite potential well of width \(L=0.5\text{ nm}\). Calculate the number of allowed quantum states that have a wave vector 'k' in the range \(10\text{ nm}^{-1} \le k \le 100\text{ nm}^{-1}\).
  116. An electron and proton are moving with the same kinetic energies. Which of the following statements is true about their de-Broglie wave?
  117. If \(\psi_{1}(x)=A e^{-x^{2}/2}\) and \(\psi_{2}(x)=Be^{-x^{2}}\), the value of \(\langle \psi_{1} | \psi_{2} \rangle\) is -
  118. Energy flux of sunlight reached on Earth surface is \(1\times 10^{3}\text{ W/m}^2\) at normal incidence. How many photons reach per square metre per second? (\(\lambda = 500\text{ nm}\))
  119. How does the energy eigen values of a particle in a one-dimensional box depend on the length L of box?
  120. Who estimated the size of nucleus first?
  121. How much coal is required to generate energy that is equivalent to the energy generated through the fission of one kg (1 kg) of uranium?
  122. Which of the following is the correct relativistic momentum-energy relation?
  123. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
  124. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is applicable to -
  125. Find the probability that the nucleus of \(_{87}\text{Ra}^{221}\) undergoes decay in over three half-life period, if it has a half-life of 6 days?
  126. What type of reaction takes place in Sun?
  127. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry the same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?
  128. Which one of the following is correct for Rydberg constant R?
  129. An electron in a hydrogen atom performs a transition from \(n=4\) to \(n=2\) energy state. To which spectral series does this transition belong?Hydrogen Atom Spectral Series & Transitions n=1 (-13.6 eV) n=2 (-3.4 eV) n=3 (-1.51 eV) n=4 (-0.85 eV) n=5 (-0.54 eV) Lyman (UV) n=4 → n=2 (Hβ) Balmer Series (Visible) Paschen (IR)
  130. An element 'X' has two isotopes, \(^{20}\text{X}\) with 90% abundance and \(^{22}\text{X}\) with 10% abundance. What is the average atomic mass?
  131. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the ground state of doubly-ionised Lithium atom \((Z=3)\) is:
  132. If the binding energy of a nucleus is greater than zero, then the nucleus :
  133. Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 years, undergoing \(\beta\)-decay. What fraction of a sample of pure Tritium will remain undecayed after 25 years?
  134. Consider spectral series of hydrogen: 1. Lyman 2. Balmer 3. Paschen 4. Bracket. How many of the above lie in the visible region?
  135. The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom in an excited state is -3.4 eV. Find the angular momentum of the electron.
  136. The potential of a diatomic molecule is \(V(r)=-\frac{a}{r^{6}}+\frac{b}{r^{12}}\). Value of potential at equilibrium separation between atoms will be:
  137. Electrical pumping is used in:
  138. The ground state of \(_{11}^{23}\text{Na}\) is \(2s_{1/2}\). Difference of energy levels arising in presence of weak external magnetic field 'B' in terms of Bohr magneton \(\mu_{B}\) will be:
  139. Which one of the following was a major drawback of Rutherford's atomic model?
  140. If in a system, more atoms are in an excited state than its ground state, then this condition is termed as
  141. What is Stark effect?
  142. Which of the following method(s) is correct method(s) of achieving population inversion in case of laser?
  143. In a normal Zeeman effect experiment, spectral splitting of lines at 656 nm corresponding to \(^{3}p_{2}-^{3}s_{1}\) transition is observed with resolution 0.008 nm. Minimum magnetic field required is:
  144. Speed of an electron in Bohr's 5th orbit for hydrogen atom is \(3.6\times 10^{6}\text{ m/s}\). Corresponding speed in 9th orbit will be:
  145. In a He-Ne Laser, the laser transition takes place in
  146. The output of a laser \((\lambda=6600\text{ Å})\) has pulse duration of 35 ms, and average output power of 1 watt per pulse. How much energy per pulse is released?
  147. What is the coherence length of a laser beam for which bandwidth is \(\Delta v=3000\text{ Hz}\)? \((c=3\times 10^{8}\text{ m/s})\)
  148. The \(L_{\beta}\) lines of X-rays emitted from an atom arises from which transition?
  149. For hard X-rays : (A) Wavelength higher (B) Intensity higher (C) Frequency higher (D) Photon energy higher
  150. The coherence length \((L_{c})\) of a source is related to its spectral width \((\Delta \lambda)\) by:
test simulates the actual time constraints, reinforces quick numerical substitution, highlights weak topics, and teaches proper risk control under negative marking.

Q4. What is the essential eligibility for UKPSC Lecturer Physics?

Candidates must possess a Master’s degree (M.Sc.) in Physics from a recognized university along with a B.Ed. degree or LT Diploma from an authorized institution.

📖 Test Questions & Syllabus Outline (Google Search Index & Study Reference) Total: 50 Questions

This online mock test covers the following chemistry practice questions with bilingual explanations, negative marking schemes, and interactive CBT interface. Students searching for these topics can practice the complete test online with real-time timers:

  1. In the reactions (A) and (B), CSIR NET June 2012 | Q21 | Inorganic Chemistry / Acid-Base Behavior of Water
    प्रश्न संख्या 21: In the reactions (A) and (B),
  2. The correct structure of basic beryllium nitrate is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q23 | Inorganic Clusters / Basic Beryllium Nitrate Structure
    प्रश्न संख्या 23: The correct structure of basic beryllium nitrate is:
  3. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in I3- is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q24 | Chemical Bonding & VSEPR / Total Lone Pairs in Triiodide Ion
    प्रश्न संख्या 24: The total number of lone pairs of electrons in I3- is:
  4. The spectrophotometric response for the titration of a mixture of Fe 3 + and Cu 2 + ions against EDTA CSIR NET June 2012 | Q26 | Analytical Chemistry / Spectrophotometric Titration of Fe(III) and Cu(II)
    प्रश्न संख्या 26: The spectrophotometric response for the titration of a mixture of Fe 3 + and Cu 2 + ions against EDTA
  5. The actual base pairs present in the double helical structure of DNA containing adenine (A), thymine CSIR NET June 2012 | Q28 | Bio-organic Chemistry / Watson-Crick Base Pairing in DNA
    प्रश्न संख्या 28: The actual base pairs present in the double helical structure of DNA containing adenine (A), thymine
  6. The oxidation state of iron in met-hemoglobin is CSIR NET June 2012 | Q29 | Bioinorganic Chemistry / Oxidation State of Iron in Met-Hemoglobin
    प्रश्न संख्या 29: The oxidation state of iron in met-hemoglobin is
  7. The reactions of Ni ( CO )4 with the ligand ( L = PMe 3 or P ( OMe ) 3 ) L yields Ni ( CO )3 L. TheThe CSIR NET June 2012 | Q30 | Organometallic Mechanisms / Dissociative Substitution in Ni(CO)4
    प्रश्न संख्या 30: The reactions of Ni ( CO )4 with the ligand ( L = PMe 3 or P ( OMe ) 3 ) L yields Ni ( CO )3 L. TheThe
  8. For the reaction, trans- ⌈ ⌊ IrCl ( CO )( PPh 3 ) 2 ⌉ ⌋ + Cl 2 → trans - ⌈ ⌊ IrCl 3 ( CO )( Phh 3 ) 2 ⌉ ⌋, the correct CSIR NET June 2012 | Q34 | Organometallics / Vaska Complex Oxidative Addition of Chlorine
    प्रश्न संख्या 34: For the reaction, trans- ⌈ ⌊ IrCl ( CO )( PPh 3 ) 2 ⌉ ⌋ + Cl 2 → trans - ⌈ ⌊ IrCl 3 ( CO )( Phh 3 ) 2 ⌉ ⌋, the correct
  9. The nucleophilic attack on olefins under mild conditions: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q35 | Organometallics / Transition Metal Activation of Olefins
    प्रश्न संख्या 35: The nucleophilic attack on olefins under mild conditions:
  10. The least basic among the following is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q37 | Inorganic Chemistry / Lanthanide Contraction & Basicity of Hydroxides
    प्रश्न संख्या 37: The least basic among the following is:
  11. For any operator A and its adjoint A †, the INCORRECT statement is: (a) AA † is hermitian (b) AA † + A † A is hermitian. CSIR NET June 2012 | Q38 | Quantum Mechanics / Properties of Adjoint and Hermitian Operators
    प्रश्न संख्या 38: For any operator A and its adjoint A †, the INCORRECT statement is: (a) AA † is hermitian (b) AA † + A † A is hermitian.
  12. For hydrogen-like atom with a nuclear charge Z, the energy of orbital with principal quantum num- CSIR NET June 2012 | Q39 | Atomic Structure / Bohr Energy Formula for Hydrogen-like Atoms
    प्रश्न संख्या 39: For hydrogen-like atom with a nuclear charge Z, the energy of orbital with principal quantum num-
  13. The average (a) a0 CSIR NET June 2012 | Q40 | Quantum Mechanics / Expectation Value of Radius in Hydrogen 1s
    प्रश्न संख्या 40: The average (a) a0
  14. Among the following, the CORRECT statement is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q41 | Group Theory / Great Orthogonality Theorem & Irreducible Representations
    प्रश्न संख्या 41: Among the following, the CORRECT statement is:
  15. For the vibrational Raman spectrum of a homonuclear diatomic molecule, the selection rule under CSIR NET June 2012 | Q43 | Molecular Spectroscopy / Vibrational Raman Selection Rules
    प्रश्न संख्या 43: For the vibrational Raman spectrum of a homonuclear diatomic molecule, the selection rule under
  16. With increase in temperature, the Gibbs free energy for the adsorption of a gas on to a solid surface CSIR NET June 2012 | Q44 | Surface Chemistry / Temperature Effect on Adsorption Gibbs Free Energy
    प्रश्न संख्या 44: With increase in temperature, the Gibbs free energy for the adsorption of a gas on to a solid surface
  17. The vapour of a pure substance, when cooled under a pressure less than its triple-piont pressure, CSIR NET June 2012 | Q45 | Thermodynamics / Phase Transitions Below Triple Point Pressure
    प्रश्न संख्या 45: The vapour of a pure substance, when cooled under a pressure less than its triple-piont pressure,
  18. The quantities, which are held fixed in a canonical ensemble are CSIR NET June 2012 | Q46 | Statistical Mechanics / Canonical Ensemble Thermodynamic Variables
    प्रश्न संख्या 46: The quantities, which are held fixed in a canonical ensemble are
  19. The correct value of Eº, of a half cell in the following graph of E vs log m(molality) is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q47 | Electrochemistry / Determination of Standard Half-Cell Potential E°
    प्रश्न संख्या 47: The correct value of Eº, of a half cell in the following graph of E vs log m(molality) is:
  20. One of the assumptions made in the conventional activated complex theory is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q48 | Chemical Kinetics / Activated Complex Theory Postulates
    प्रश्न संख्या 48: One of the assumptions made in the conventional activated complex theory is:
  21. For a reaction, the rate constant k at 27ºC was found to be k = 5.4 × CSIR NET June 2012 | Q49 | Chemical Kinetics / Arrhenius Activation Energy Determination
    प्रश्न संख्या 49: For a reaction, the rate constant k at 27ºC was found to be k = 5.4 ×
  22. During the addition polymerisation, the reaction proceeds via CSIR NET June 2012 | Q50 | Polymer Chemistry / Addition Polymerization Chain Mechanism
    प्रश्न संख्या 50: During the addition polymerisation, the reaction proceeds via
  23. How many atoms are there in an element packed in a fcc structure CSIR NET June 2012 | Q51 | Solid State / Number of Atoms per Unit Cell in FCC Lattice
    प्रश्न संख्या 51: How many atoms are there in an element packed in a fcc structure
  24. The structure obtained when all the tetrahedral holes are occupied in a fcc structure is of the type CSIR NET June 2012 | Q52 | Solid State / Tetrahedral Holes Filling in FCC Lattice (Fluorite)
    प्रश्न संख्या 52: The structure obtained when all the tetrahedral holes are occupied in a fcc structure is of the type
  25. (a) NaCl Dispersion (b) CsCl of a solid in a liquid, a liquid in a (c) gas CaFand 2 a liquid in a liquid (d) ZnS CSIR NET June 2012 | Q53 | Colloid Chemistry / Colloidal Dispersions Nomenclature
    प्रश्न संख्या 53: (a) NaCl Dispersion (b) CsCl of a solid in a liquid, a liquid in a (c) gas CaFand 2 a liquid in a liquid (d) ZnS
  26. The Experiment Mean data obtained from A 50 two units sets of experiments B CSIR NET June 2012 | Q54 | Analytical Chemistry / Statistical Comparison of Precision & Variance
    प्रश्न संख्या 54: The Experiment Mean data obtained from A 50 two units sets of experiments B
  27. The IUPAC name of the compound given below is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q55 | Organic Nomenclature / IUPAC Naming of Chiral Cyclohexenones
    प्रश्न संख्या 55: The IUPAC name of the compound given below is:
  28. The major product formed in the following reaction is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q56 | Organic Synthesis / Intramolecular Alkylation with NaH
    प्रश्न संख्या 56: The major product formed in the following reaction is:
  29. The number of signals that appear in the broadband decoupled 13C NMR spectrum of phenan- CSIR NET June 2012 | Q57 | Organic Spectroscopy / 13C NMR Symmetry Signals of Polyaromatics
    प्रश्न संख्या 57: The number of signals that appear in the broadband decoupled 13C NMR spectrum of phenan-
  30. The co-enzyme that is involved in the reduction of a double bond in fatty acid bisynthesis is: (a) NADH (b) Biotin CSIR NET June 2012 | Q58 | Biochemistry / Co-enzyme in Fatty Acid Biosynthesis
    प्रश्न संख्या 58: The co-enzyme that is involved in the reduction of a double bond in fatty acid bisynthesis is: (a) NADH (b) Biotin
  31. Epoxidation of (R)-cyclohex-2-enol CSIR NET June 2012 | Q59 | Stereochemistry / Diastereoselective Epoxidation of Chiral Allylic Alcohols
    प्रश्न संख्या 59: Epoxidation of (R)-cyclohex-2-enol
  32. The major product formed in the following concerted reaction is CSIR NET June 2012 | Q60 | Pericyclic Reactions / Concerted Electrocyclic Ring Closure
    प्रश्न संख्या 60: The major product formed in the following concerted reaction is
  33. The structure of meso-tricarboxylic acid that is formed on potassium permanganate oxidation of CSIR NET June 2012 | Q61 | Natural Products / Meso-Tricarboxylic Acid from Abietic Acid
    प्रश्न संख्या 61: The structure of meso-tricarboxylic acid that is formed on potassium permanganate oxidation of
  34. The major product formed in the following reaction is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q62 | Organic Reactions / Halogenation of Cyclic Enones in Methanol
    प्रश्न संख्या 62: The major product formed in the following reaction is:
  35. The major product formed in the following reaction is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q63 | Organic Synthesis / Epoxidation and Trans-Diaxial Ring Opening
    प्रश्न संख्या 63: The major product formed in the following reaction is:
  36. Among the following, the synthetic equivalent for acyl anion is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q64 | Organic Synthesis / Umpolung & Synthetic Equivalents of Acyl Anion
    प्रश्न संख्या 64: Among the following, the synthetic equivalent for acyl anion is:
  37. Among the following, the compound that undergoes deprotection easily on treatment with hydrogen CSIR NET June 2012 | Q65 | Organic Synthesis / Deprotection of Benzyl Carbamates (Cbz)
    प्रश्न संख्या 65: Among the following, the compound that undergoes deprotection easily on treatment with hydrogen
  38. Among the following, the amino acid which is basic in nature is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q66 | Bio-organic Chemistry / Basic Amino Acids & Side Chains
    प्रश्न संख्या 66: Among the following, the amino acid which is basic in nature is:
  39. “Phosphorescence” is represented as CSIR NET June 2012 | Q67 | Photochemistry / Jablonski Diagram & Phosphorescence Mechanism
    प्रश्न संख्या 67: “Phosphorescence” is represented as
  40. Among the following diacids, the one that forms an anhydride fastest on heating with acetic anhy- CSIR NET June 2012 | Q68 | Organic Reactions / Anhydride Formation from Cyclic Dicarboxylic Acids
    प्रश्न संख्या 68: Among the following diacids, the one that forms an anhydride fastest on heating with acetic anhy-
  41. The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q69 | Organic Synthesis / Birch Reduction followed by Epoxidation
    प्रश्न संख्या 69: The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is:
  42. In the 400 MHz 1H NMR spectrum, of organic compound exhibited a doublet. The two lines of the CSIR NET June 2012 | Q70 | Organic Spectroscopy / 1H NMR Coupling Constant Calculation (J value)
    प्रश्न संख्या 70: In the 400 MHz 1H NMR spectrum, of organic compound exhibited a doublet. The two lines of the
  43. The strength of p π - d π bonding in E–O (E = Si, P, S and Cl) follows the order CSIR NET June 2012 | Q71 | Chemical Bonding / p(pi)-d(pi) Bonding Strength in Group 14-17 Oxides
    प्रश्न संख्या 71: The strength of p π - d π bonding in E–O (E = Si, P, S and Cl) follows the order
  44. In the following reactions carried out Zn ( NH 2 ) 2 + 2KNH 2 in --→ liquid K 2 ⌈ ⌊ NHZn 3( . CSIR NET June 2012 | Q72 | Inorganic Chemistry / Liquid Ammonia Solvo-Acids and Solvo-Bases
    प्रश्न संख्या 72: In the following reactions carried out Zn ( NH 2 ) 2 + 2KNH 2 in --→ liquid K 2 ⌈ ⌊ NHZn 3( .
  45. The pair of lanthanides with the highest third-ionization energy is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q73 | f-Block Chemistry / Third Ionization Energies of Lanthanides (Eu, Yb)
    प्रश्न संख्या 73: The pair of lanthanides with the highest third-ionization energy is:
  46. The lanthanide(III) ion having the highest partition coefficient between tri-n-butylphosphate and CSIR NET June 2012 | Q74 | f-Block Chemistry / Solvent Extraction of Lanthanides with TBP
    प्रश्न संख्या 74: The lanthanide(III) ion having the highest partition coefficient between tri-n-butylphosphate and
  47. The quantitative determination of N2H4 with KIO3 proceeds in a mixture of H2O/CCl4 as follows CSIR NET June 2012 | Q75 | Analytical Chemistry / Andrews Titration of Hydrazine with Iodate
    प्रश्न संख्या 75: The quantitative determination of N2H4 with KIO3 proceeds in a mixture of H2O/CCl4 as follows
  48. Among the (a) A and B halides, NCl(b) 3(A), A and PClC 3(B) and AsCl(c) 3(C), B and those C which produce two different (d) A, B and C CSIR NET June 2012 | Q76 | Main Group Chemistry / Hydrolysis of Non-metal Chlorides
    प्रश्न संख्या 76: Among the (a) A and B halides, NCl(b) 3(A), A and PClC 3(B) and AsCl(c) 3(C), B and those C which produce two different (d) A, B and C
  49. The decreasing order of dipole moment of molecules is CSIR NET June 2012 | Q77 | Molecular Structure / Dipole Moments of Polar Diatomics & Triatomics
    प्रश्न संख्या 77: The decreasing order of dipole moment of molecules is
  50. The cluster having arachno type structure is: CSIR NET June 2012 | Q78 | Inorganic Clusters / Polyhedral Skeletal Electron Pair Theory (PSEPT)
    प्रश्न संख्या 78: The cluster having arachno type structure is:
test simulates actual time constraints, reinforces quick numerical substitution, highlights weak topics, and teaches proper risk control under negative marking." } }, { "@type": "Question", "name": "What is the essential eligibility for UKPSC Lecturer Physics?", "acceptedAnswer": { "@type": "Answer", "text": "Candidates must possess a Master's degree (M.Sc.) in Physics from a recognized university along with a B.Ed. degree or LT Diploma from an authorized institution." } } ] }

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